I am reading C&C, now that it is completely posted, and I am a bit puzzled by the assumed immorality/impropriety of Dante's Inferno. Having studied it entirely and extensively in high school, I can undoubtedly claim that there is no immoral meaning in it, on the contrary it gives a broad picture of punishment for sinners. How can that be "not proper" or show a lack of character in a person who choses to read it?
Of course, there are a few verses (particularly those about the lustful) which could be taken as too blatant, but only by a very strait-laced person. I mean, a reference to kisses is not frowned upon if it is in a play or sonnet by Shakespeare, so why would it be so shocking in a context where it is considered a sin and the couple who kissed is being punished? Is perhaps the adultery the real problem? Again, if that were the case, it would be a contradiction: who disapproves of adultery cannot disapprove of verses against it.
I would really appreciate your comments, especially (if possible), those of Lizzy C. who, as the author, can help me understand her real meaning.
Of course, there are a few verses (particularly those about the lustful) which could be taken as too blatant, but only by a very strait-laced person. I mean, a reference to kisses is not frowned upon if it is in a play or sonnet by Shakespeare, so why would it be so shocking in a context where it is considered a sin and the couple who kissed is being punished? Is perhaps the adultery the real problem? Again, if that were the case, it would be a contradiction: who disapproves of adultery cannot disapprove of verses against it.
I would really appreciate your comments, especially (if possible), those of Lizzy C. who, as the author, can help me understand her real meaning.